This question was posted in the Mortgage Question section and I thought I would take the time to answer it.
I have the following question. I divorced 3 years ago and I owned a home with my ex-wife. I moved out into an investment property that I owned. Then I was deployed to Afghanistan and I just came back. I bought a home as a single person in July of this year. Do I qualify for the first time home buyer since the prior property was kept by my ex-wife?. I read somewhere that I could be considered as a first time home buyer
thanks
To answer your question, you need to identify dates and you need to state if you still own either home. If you are no longer an owner on your ex-wife’s home and also sold the investment property OVER three years before buying this new home, you would be eligible for the first time home buyer credit if you fall under the income limits.
We are not tax specialists so you should really consult a tax professional but I am pretty certain there are no exceptions. It cannot be close to three years; must be OVER three years. You cannot have owned any home in the three years prior to buying the new home. Does not matter if it was your primary residence, investment property, condo, etc.
The brand new legislation extends a $6,500 tax benefit to anyone who has owned and lived in one particular home for more than 5 consecutive years during the last 8 years. Cannot be a combined time line from two separate properties and there can be no time line gaps. Must be consecutive but this is new as of this week.
Good question but you really should consult a tax professional also. I hope this information helps get you started and if you have further questions about VA Loans please visit the VA Mortgage Center.com.
